If MD only states vascular dementia with no etiology and is not forthcoming with any additional information, is it appropriate to code to I67.9 followed by F01.50?
I would love to know the answer to this myself. I have been recently told vascular dementia may be coded alone, without etiology, as the "code first" convention should be interpreted as "if present". I need clarification!
Per the January 2018 newsletter, " You cannot assign a code from F01.- by itself." "Do everything you can to avoid assigning the non-specific code I67.9 as the etiology for a patient's vascular dementia. If that's all the documentation will allow, query the physician for more information."
i have found to have the same problem and have coded I67.9.
My agency did seek guidance from the coding clinic and while we should always query the MD for the specific etiology, if it is not available from the MD we should use the I67.9 code